1Z0-1059-24 Questions PDF [2025] Use Valid New dump to Clear Exam

Passing Oracle 1Z0-1059-24 Exam Using 2025 Practice Tests

NEW QUESTION # 34
Which two are incorrect statements about the Oracle Fusion Receivables Transaction Sources section in the Manage Revenue Management System Options page?

• A. You can choose which Transaction Sources in Fusion Receivables integrate to Revenue Management.
• B. Revenue Management can only integrate to Fusion Receivables.
• C. You can add up to 5 Transaction Sources as part of your integration with Fusion Receivables.
• D. You can define date filters in order to consider only relevant data needed to comply with the new revenue recognition standards.

Answer: B,D

NEW QUESTION # 35
Given Oracle Revenue Management Cloud has predefined integration with Oracle E-Business Suite Financials, which two steps are NOT part of the steps to configure EBS for integration with Revenue Management Cloud?

• A. Set the Profile Option AR: Source System Value for Revenue Management.
• B. Apply appropriate patches to EBS.
• C. Run the Deploy System Options process.
• D. Map the EBS Chart of Accounts to the Cloud General Ledger.
• E. Set the System Options in EBS Receivables on the Revenue Management tab.

Answer: C,D

NEW QUESTION # 36
Which statement is true regarding natural accounts: Contract Liability, Contract Asset, Price Variance, and Contract Discount?

• A. If nonexistent, these accounts are added automatically to the chart of accounts.
• B. These accounts are not relevant to Revenue Management.
• C. If nonexistent, these accounts need to be added to the chart of accounts.
• D. These accounts are optional in Revenue Management.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 37
A corporation uses a primary ledger with a currency of USD. The organization's data includes source document lines with amounts expressed in the Euro currency. However, Revenue Management calculates transaction totals, allocations, and creates accounting in the ledger currency.
Which two options are available In Revenue Management to convert transaction amounts to the USD currency?

• A. Select Conversion Rate Type in the Source Document Type setup.
• B. Enter Conversion Rate Type in System Options.
• C. Run the Revenue Management translation process.
• D. Provide currency conversion details in the Revenue Basis Data Import Template.
• E. Enter exchange rate information in Standalone Selling Price Profile.

Answer: B,C

NEW QUESTION # 38
Which three statements describe how Revenue Management creates accounting contracts to meet the new ASC 606 / IFRS 15 revenue recognition standards?

• A. by grouping source document lines intro contracts for each identified customer
• B. by allowing manual allocation of Total Transaction Price across performance obligations
• C. by calculating Total Transaction Price for contracts
• D. by restricting users from excluding contract lines
• E. by only creating contracts that are source system specific
• F. by identifying and creating one or more performance obligations for a given accounting contract

Answer: A,B,E

NEW QUESTION # 39
Which, when transferred to a customer, allows you to recognize revenue?

• A. a shipment
• B. a performance obligation
• C. an invoice
• D. promise detail

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 40
If the Contract Identification Rules that you defined for your customer did not group the source data into customer as expected, how would you resolve the issue?

• A. Delete the performance obligations from the relevant contracts through the Manage Customer Contracts Ul.
• B. Delete the source data that was imported into Revenue Management and import new source data.
• C. Run the Discard Customer Contracts program for the relevant contracts and run the Identify Customer contracts program again.
• D. Run the Discard Customer Contracts program for the relevant contracts, define a new, higher-priority Contract Identification Rule, and run The Identify Customer Contracts program again.
• E. Delete Contracts from the Manage Customer Contracts Ul.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 41
Which two are incorrect statements about the Oracle Fusion Receivables Transaction Sources section in the Manage Revenue Management System Options page?

• A. Revenue Management can only integrate to Fusion Receivables.
• B. You can define date filters in order to consider only relevant data needed to comply with the
• C. You can add up to 5 Transaction Sources as part of your integration with Fusion Receivables.
• D. You can choose which Transaction Sources in Fusion Receivables integrate to Revenue

Answer: A,B

NEW QUESTION # 42
At which level does Oracle Revenue management perform accounting?

• A. Legal entity level
• B. Performance obligation level
• C. Contract level

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 43
65-A business entity (your client) sells a computer, monitor, keyboard, and mouse as a single package to consumers. The entity has identified that this bundle is a distinct performance obligation. How would you configure the Performance Obligation Identification Rule to ensure correct grouping of these items?

• A. By defining an item group and assigning that to the rule
• B. By defining an exclusion rule to exclude customer classes that are "Retail"
• C. By defining a grouping rule on the customer class
• D. By defining a grouping on an extensible line attribute and ensuring that the source lines for the specified items contain different values for that attribute
• E. By defining a grouping on an extensible line attribute and ensuring that the source lines for the specified items contain the same value for that attribute

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 44
What is a Performance Obligation?

• A. a product code or SKU
• B. a combination of customer type and product code
• C. a promise to a customer on which either party has acted
• D. a promise to a customer

Answer: D

Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel12/financialscs_gs/FAIRP/FAIRP2288193.htm#FAIRP2456627

NEW QUESTION # 45
You define a Contract Identification Rule that uses the following source document attributes to match transaction lines:
Bill-to Customer Party Identifier
Extensible Header Character Attribute 4
Based the data displayed:

How many contracts will be created In Revenue Management?

• A. 0
• B. 1
• C. 2
• D. 3
• E. 4

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION # 46
A business entity (your client) sells a computer, monitor, keyboard, and mouse as a single package to consumers. The entity has identified that this bundle is a distinct performance obligation. How should you configure Revenue management to ensure that these items are grouped into one performance obligation?

• A. By defining a Standalone Selling Price Profile.
• B. By defining a Performance Obligation Template.
• C. By defining a Contact Identification Rule.
• D. By defining a Revenue Item Group

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 47
Given the Standalone Selling Price Profile combines all the key setup attributes of pricing Into one place, you create all standalone selling prices from the Standalone Selling Price Profiles for all Items or groups of items.
Which three setup attributes are part of a Standalone Selling Price Profile?

• A. SSP Tolerance Usage
• B. Pricing Dimension Assignment
• C. Items
• D. Observed Standalone Selling Prices
• E. Estimated Standalone Selling Prices

Answer: B,D,E

NEW QUESTION # 48
When is it required to populate a value for Performance Satisfaction Plan In a Source Document Type?

• A. when the Satisfaction Measurement Model is set to Period
• B. when the Satisfaction Measurement Model Is set to Percentage
• C. when the Satisfaction Measurement Model is set to Amount
• D. when the Satisfaction Measurement Model is set to Quantity

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 49
Given your organization's Interactions with one of Its customers:
A consultant is deployed to assist customer on 10-Sep-2017.
A Sales order is booked on 14-Sep-2017.
The Product is shipped on 15-Sep-2017.
An Invoice is issued on 20-Sep-2017.
When do you accrue the contract liability?

• A. when the sales order Is booked on 14-Sep-2017
• B. when an invoice is issued on 20-Sep-2017
• C. when the consultant is deployed to assist customer on 10-Sep-2017
• D. when the product is shipped on 15-Sep-2017

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 50
What are two major changes when comparing the new revenue recognition guidance under ASC 606 and IFRS 15 versus the old standard?

• A. Pricing estimates cannot be used In the absence of pricing data.
• B. Expected consideration value is applicable to all industries.
• C. Revenue can be recognized for performance obligations only using the "Point in Time" approach.
• D. Revenue and performance obligation liabilities are not dependent on billing.

Answer: A,B

NEW QUESTION # 51
Which is the following is NOT a feature of personalization

• A. Saving searches
• B. Selecting default language
• C. Configuring table columns
• D. Changing text font

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 52
Which statement does NOT describe how revenue is handled under the latest standards under ASC 606 and IFRS 15?

• A. You value the accrual at estimated consideration and it is a monetary debt.
• B. Liability is a list of goods and services you actually owe to the customers for future satisfaction via transfer.
• C. You accrue for goods and services that you owe to customers because either you or they have relied on the contract. You no longer defer revenue.
• D. You calculate the liability at inception and book it when either party acts. An Act could be shipping or invoicing.
• E. You book the invoiced amount to the P&L when you meet the regulatory definition by Industry.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 53
When deciding how to set up the system to recognize revenue, it is important to understand the extent of revenue deferral and the subsequent timing of revenue recognition. Which two statements are true when you consider that recognition depends on the nature of the contingency? (Choose two)

• A. Time-based contingencies can expire, but the contingency will have to be removed manually before the revenue is recognized if payment is not due yet
• B. Time-based contingencies must not expire before the contingency can be removed and revenue recognized
• C. Payment-based contingencies do not always require payment before the contingency can be removed and revenue recognized
• D. Pre-billing customer acceptance clauses require the recording of customer acceptance in the feeder system, or its expiration, before importing into Receivables for invoicing. Customer acceptance or its expiration must occur before the contingency can be removed and the order can be imported into Receivables for invoicing.
• E. Post-billing customer acceptance clauses must expire (implicit acceptance), or be manually accepted (explicit acceptance), before the contingency can be removed and revenue recognized.

Answer: D,E

NEW QUESTION # 54
Which three statements about Effective Periods are true?

• A. Effective Periods only define the rage where standalone selling prices of an item should be effective.
• B. If effective periods are not defined. Revenue Management uses the General Ledger calendar.
• C. Gaps between periods are not allowed.
• D. You cannot have overlapping periods.
• E. Effective Periods are used for standalone selling prices and for creating journal entries.

Answer: A,D,E

NEW QUESTION # 55
What is the correct match sequence of the descriptions A, B and C against the titles?

• A. B, A, C
• B. A, B, C
• C. A, C, B
• D. B, C, A
• E. C, B, A
• F. C, A, B

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 56
When is it required to populate the number of periods and percentage of revenue (seen in the image below) while defining a revenue scheduling rule?

• A. when the Deferred Revenue box is checked
• B. when the Type is Fixed or Variable
• C. when it is a business requirement
• D. when Context Values are populated

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 57
Oracle Revenue Management is part of_____________________predefined offering.

• A. Fusion Accounting Hub
• B. Incentive Compensation
• C. Enterprise Contracts
• D. Financials

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 58
After defining a pricing dimension structure for a customer, you must define a pricing dimension structure instance. Which two attributes on the structure instance are inherited from the structure definition?

• A. The Query Required option
• B. The value sets
• C. The Displayed option
• D. The shape: Same nunmber of segments and order
• E. Wether Dynamic Combination Creation Allowed is enabled

Answer: B,D

NEW QUESTION # 59
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